Not that ‘Old Chestnut’ again! . Is the person in Daniel 10, the same person as mentioned in Revelation 1:13-15 and 2:18? If so, He is Jesus!
Just thought I'd mention my views on this subject as I have just started ‘The Book of Revelation’ again. The similarities between the account mentioned Revelation 1 (Which all agree is Jesus) and Daniel 10, are striking.
13 - And in the midst of the seven candlesticks one like unto the (A) Son of man, clothed with a (B) garment down to the foot, and girt about the paps with a (C) golden girdle.
14 - His head and his hairs were white like wool, as white as snow; and his (D) eyes were as a flame of fire; 15 And his (E) feet like unto fine brass, as if they burned in a furnace; and his (F) voice as the sound of many waters.
And unto the angel of the church in Thyatira write; These things saith the (A) Son of God, who hath his (D) eyes like unto a flame of fire, and his (E) feet are like fine brass; The similarities with the person of Daniel 10:5-6 can hardly be ignored:
5 Then I lifted up mine eyes, and looked, and behold a certain man (B) clothed in linen, whose (C) loins were girded with fine gold of Uphaz: 6 His body also was like the beryl, and his face as the appearance of lightning, and his (D) eyes as lamps of fire, and his arms and his (E) feet like in colour to polished brass, and the (F) voice of his words like the voice of a multitude.
- “Son of Man/God” - Not mentioned in Daniel 10
- “Golden girdle”
- “Eyes like a flame of fires”
- “Feet like fine/polished brass”
- “Voice like a multitude/many waters”
Admittedly, one of the main attributes missing in the Daniel account is (A). Both ‘The Son of Man’ (Matthew 1:23) and ‘The Son of God’ (Proverbs 30:4) speaking of the resurrected Christ, God who had become a Man (John 1:14) however, we need to remember, at the time of the Daniel account Jesus had yet to become a Man, could it be that at that point He had yet to become the Son of God too? Hmm... As it is quite clear that at some point He ‘became God's Son’ ...this day have I begotten you... and until that point came was still ‘God the Word’. It ‘may’ have been some time after the Daniel 10 account that The Word humbled Himself into a ‘Father and Son relationship’ with Jehovah for the purpose of redeeming Mankind back to God. When He became God's Son is something I would love to know, was it before or when He became a Man?
Many find it hard to accept that the figure in both Daniel and Revelation is Jesus, this because the following verse suggests that Jesus needed assistance in fighting a demonic entity called ‘The Prince of Persia’.
But the prince of the kingdom of Persia withstood me one and twenty days: but, lo, Michael, one of the chief princes, came to help me; and I remained there with the kings of Persia.
The ‘Christian’ Cults fervently resist this notion (That both accounts are of Jesus) as it completely destroys their doctrine that Jesus is Michael the archangel, for if that were the case how can ‘the archangel Jesus’ come to assist Jesus in battling this demonic? They prefer instead to suggest that the vision was of Jesus but the voice of the archangel Gabriel. (At lest that is what one JW told me).
For those who are interested in this subject, it is worth noting in Daniel 10:13 the word ‘Kings’ is used rather than the singular “King” - “...remained there with the kings of Persia” (Medo-Persia) thus not only was he strengthening Darius but my guess is Cyrus too, and it was Cyrus who took Babylon and had the last king of the Babylonians killed that very night (Belshazzar), once accomplished he then passed Babylon over to King Darius - Daniel 5:30-31.
However regarding who the person is in Daniel 10, there are many in Christianity that do not accept it is Jesus, why? because they find it an affront to suggest that Jesus needs any assistance at all. But wasn't the battle over the heart and will of the Kings of Medo-Persia, who were essential in the fall of Babylon and the return of the Jews to Jerusalem? Isn't there the very same battle going on in our hearts today between following Jesus, our own will or the will of the ‘god of this present age’? Doesn't Jesus even use us to turn sinners away from sin? Aren't angels employed to fight for Him continually?
When a battle rages between God and Satan over our will, to sin or to obey God, does God force us to obey Him? Have we not all at one time or another disobeyed our Lord and grieved the Holy Spirit? Jesus will not impose His will on Mankind. If it were a plain fight between Jesus and a demonic, Jesus would just say the word and the demonic would be finished. But Jesus is restrained by His righteousness and by His Word, if a man wishes to follow a demonic follow him he can to his own destruction.
Therefore it is my suggestion that Jesus was in a battle over the hearts of the ‘Kings’ of Persia, not an out-right fight with a demonic. Jesus using truth, mercy and peace but the demonic lies, fear and the temptations of this World:
1 John 2:16
For all that is in the world, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life, is not of the Father, but is of the world
I guess, once again Satan was trying the break the the prophecies of God. This time trying to annul the prophecy that the Jews were going to return to Jerusalem after a 70 year captivity in Babylon (1st return). Just as he did when he killed all the children in Bethlehem and tried to prevent the prophesied coming of the Messiah. Even more recently Satan tried to fraught the prophecy that said Israel would be re-gathered to their country a second time in May 1948 after the Romans had cast them out in 70AD - (Isaiah 11:11 / 66:8). Then, in 1948 the Arab Nations around about attacked tiny Israel, yet rather than crush them Israel crushed all those Arab Nations. To survive, Satan's only strategy seems to be to attempt to break Scripture.
Anyway, must finish, just my thoughts, as always I welcome correction and guidance.